Matching
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Match each item with the correct statement below. a. | organic chemistry | d. | analytical chemistry | b. | inorganic chemistry | e. | physical chemistry | c. | biochemistry |
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1.
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the study of the processes that take place in organisms
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2.
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concerned with the mechanism, rate, and energy transfer that occurs when matter
undergoes a change
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3.
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the study of all chemicals containing carbon
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4.
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the study of chemicals that, in general, do not contain carbon
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5.
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the study of the composition of matter
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Match each item with the correct statement below. a. | mixture | d. | reactant | b. | product | e. | heterogeneous mixture | c. | phase | f. | vapor |
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6.
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gaseous state of substance that is a liquid or solid at room
temperature
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7.
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a physical blend of two or more components
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8.
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part of a sample having uniform composition and properties
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9.
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not uniform in composition
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10.
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a substance formed in a chemical reaction
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11.
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starting substance in a chemical reaction
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Match each item with the correct statement below. a. | distillation | d. | compound | b. | mass | e. | element | c. | chemical
reaction | f. | homogeneous
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12.
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amount of matter an object contains
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13.
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describes mixture with a uniform composition
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14.
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a process in which a liquid is boiled to produce a vapor that is condensed
again into a liquid
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15.
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substance that cannot be changed into simpler substances by chemical
means
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16.
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composed of two or more substances chemically combined in a fixed
proportion
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17.
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process in which substances are changed into different substances
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Match each item with the correct statement below. a. | absolute zero | e. | mass | b. | Kelvin temperature scale | f. | significant figure | c. | Celsius temperature
scale | g. | precision | d. | weight | h. | accuracy |
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18.
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closeness to true value
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19.
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narrowness of range of measurements
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20.
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known or estimated in a measurement
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21.
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the quantity of matter an object contains
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22.
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the lowest point on the Kelvin scale
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23.
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the SI scale for temperature
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24.
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the force of gravity on an object
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25.
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the non-SI scale for temperature
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Match each item with the correct statement below. a. | proton | d. | electron | b. | nucleus | e. | neutron | c. | atom |
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26.
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the smallest particle of an element that retains the properties of that
element
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27.
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a positively charged subatomic particle
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28.
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a negatively charged subatomic particle
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29.
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a subatomic particle with no charge
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30.
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the central part of an atom, containing protons and neutrons
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Match each item with the correct statement below. a. | mass number | d. | atomic mass | b. | atomic mass unit | e. | isotope | c. | atomic
number |
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31.
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atoms with the same number of protons, but different numbers of neutrons in the
nucleus of an atom
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32.
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the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an atom
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33.
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the number of protons in the nucleus of an element
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34.
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the weighted average of the masses of the isotopes of an element
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35.
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one-twelfth the mass of a carbon atom having six protons and six
neutrons
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Match each item with the correct statement below. a. | atomic orbital | d. | ground state | b. | aufbau principle | e. | Pauli exclusion principle | c. | electron
configuration | f. | Heisenberg
uncertainty principle |
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36.
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region of high probability of finding an electron
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37.
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states the impossibility of knowing both velocity and position of a moving
particle at the same time
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38.
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lowest energy level
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39.
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tendency of electrons to enter orbitals of lowest energy first
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40.
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arrangement of electrons around atomic nucleus
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41.
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each orbital has at most two electrons
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Match each item with the correct statement below. a. | atomic emission spectrum | d. | photon | b. | frequency | e. | quantum | c. | wavelength | f. | spectrum |
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42.
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discrete bundle of electromagnetic energy
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43.
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energy needed to move an electron from one energy level to another
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44.
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number of wave cycles passing a point per unit of time
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45.
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distance between wave crests
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46.
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separation of light into different wavelengths
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47.
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frequencies of light emitted by an element
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Match each item with the correct statement below. a. | electronegativity | f. | periodic law | b. | ionization energy | g. | cation | c. | atomic
radius | h. | period | d. | metal | i. | group | e. | transition
metal | j. | electrons |
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48.
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horizontal row in the periodic table
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49.
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vertical column in the periodic table
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50.
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A repetition of properties occurs when elements are arranged in order of
increasing atomic number.
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51.
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type of element that is a good conductor of heat and electric current
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52.
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type of element characterized by the presence of electrons in the d
orbital
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53.
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one-half the distance between the nuclei of two atoms when the atoms are
joined
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54.
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type of ion formed by Group 2A elements
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55.
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subatomic particles that are transferred to form positive and negative
ions
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56.
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ability of an atom to attract electrons when the atom is in a compound
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57.
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energy required to remove an electron from an atom
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Match each item with the correct statement below. a. | halide ion | e. | valence electron | b. | octet rule | f. | coordination number | c. | ionic
bond | g. | metallic
bond | d. | electron dot structure |
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58.
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an electron in the highest occupied energy level of an atom
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59.
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Atoms react so as to acquire the stable electron structure of a noble
gas.
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60.
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a depiction of valence electrons around the symbol of an element
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61.
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an anion of chlorine or other halogen
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62.
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the force of attraction binding oppositely charged ions together
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63.
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the attraction of valence electrons for metal ions
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64.
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the number of ions of opposite charge surrounding each ion in a crystal
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Multiple Choice Identify the
choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
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65.
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Which field of science studies the composition and structure of matter?
a. | physics | c. | chemistry | b. | biology | d. | geology |
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66.
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Which of the following would a chemist be most likely to study?
a. | a leaf floating on water | c. | a leaf being blown by the
wind | b. | a leaf changing color in autumn | d. | a leaf being eaten by
insects |
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67.
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Which of the following best describes an example of pure chemistry?
a. | testing the effects of lower concentrations of a drug on humans | b. | studying chemicals
containing carbon | c. | developing a cure for
osteoporosis | d. | finding an antidote for a new strain of virus |
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68.
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Which of the following statements is false?
a. | Knowledge of chemistry allows the public to make informed
decisions. | b. | Studying chemistry ensures that officials make correct choices in funding
technology. | c. | Knowledge of chemistry helps prepare people for careers in soil
science. | d. | Chemistry explains many aspects of nature. |
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69.
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Which of the following is NOT an example of chemistry research in the main area
of energy?
a. | producing hook-and-loop tape | b. | determining the usefulness of oil from soybean
plants | c. | developing rechargeable batteries | d. | studying the effects of
insulation |
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70.
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One characteristic of a scientific theory is that ____.
a. | it can never be proved | c. | it cannot be modified | b. | it can be
proved | d. | it summarizes a set
of observations |
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71.
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Which step in the scientific method requires you to use your senses to obtain
information?
a. | revising a hypothesis | c. | making an observation | b. | designing an
experiment | d. | stating a
theory |
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72.
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How do conceptual problems differ from numeric problems?
a. | Solutions to conceptual problems involve analysis, while numeric solutions do
not. | b. | Logic is not usually involved in solving numeric problems. | c. | A plan is necessary
to solve numeric problems, but is not necessary for conceptual problems. | d. | Solutions to
conceptual problems normally do not involve calculations. |
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73.
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Which of the following is NOT an example of matter?
a. | air | c. | smoke | b. | heat | d. | water vapor |
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74.
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All of the following are physical properties of matter EXCEPT ____.
a. | mass | c. | melting point | b. | color | d. | ability to rust |
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75.
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Which of the following are considered physical properties of a substance?
a. | color and odor | c. | malleability and hardness | b. | melting and boiling
points | d. | all of the
above |
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76.
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A vapor is which state of matter?
a. | solid | c. | gas | b. | liquid | d. | all of the
above |
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77.
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Which state of matter has a definite volume and takes the shape of its
container?
a. | solid | c. | gas | b. | liquid | d. | both b and c |
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78.
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Which state of matter is characterized by having an indefinite shape, but a
definite volume?
a. | gas | c. | solid | b. | liquid | d. | none of the
above |
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79.
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Which state of matter is characterized by having a definite shape and a definite
volume?
a. | gas | c. | solid | b. | liquid | d. | all of the
above |
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80.
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Which state of matter expands when heated and is easy to compress?
a. | gas | c. | solid | b. | liquid | d. | all of the
above |
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81.
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All of the following are physical properties of a substance in the liquid state
EXCEPT ____.
a. | indefinite volume | c. | not easily compressed | b. | definite
mass | d. | indefinite
shape |
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82.
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Which of the following is a physical change?
a. | corrosion | c. | evaporation | b. | explosion | d. | rotting of food |
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83.
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Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?
a. | air | c. | steel | b. | salt water | d. | soil |
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84.
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Which of the following is true about homogeneous mixtures?
a. | They are known as solutions. | b. | They consist of two or more
phases. | c. | They have compositions that never vary. | d. | They are always
liquids. |
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85.
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An example of a homogeneous mixture is ____.
a. | water | c. | noodle soup | b. | stainless steel | d. | oxygen |
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86.
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Which of the following items is NOT a compound?
a. | baking soda | c. | sucrose | b. | salad dressing | d. | table salt |
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87.
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Which of the following is true about compounds?
a. | They can be physically separated into their component elements. | b. | They have
compositions that vary. | c. | They are substances. | d. | They have properties
similar to those of their component elements. |
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88.
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What distinguishes a substance from a mixture?
a. | Substances are compounds, and mixtures are not. | b. | Mixtures are
groupings of elements, and compounds are not. | c. | Samples of the same substance can have
different intensive properties. | d. | Mixtures can be separated physically, while
compounds cannot. |
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89.
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The first figure in a properly written chemical symbol always is ____.
a. | boldfaced | c. | italicized | b. | capitalized | d. | underlined |
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90.
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Which of the following is used for chemical symbols today?
a. | drawings | c. | letters | b. | icons | d. | numbers |
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91.
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The chemical formula of a compound does NOT indicate the ____.
a. | identity of the elements in the compound | b. | how elements are
joined in the compound | c. | the composition of the
compound | d. | relative proportions of the elements in the compound |
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92.
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In the chemical reaction in which sucrose is heated and decomposes to form
carbon dioxide and water, which of the following is a reactant?
a. | sucrose | c. | water | b. | carbon dioxide | d. | heat |
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93.
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What must occur for a change to be a chemical reaction?
a. | There must be a change in chemical properties. | b. | There must be a
change in physical properties. | c. | The change must involve a change in
mass. | d. | The change must involve a change in volume. |
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94.
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Which of the following does NOT involve a physical change?
a. | mixing | c. | grinding | b. | melting | d. | decomposing |
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95.
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Which of the following processes does NOT involve a change in chemical
properties?
a. | rusting | c. | boiling | b. | fermenting | d. | burning |
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96.
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A chemical change occurs when a piece of wood ____.
a. | is split | c. | decays | b. | is painted | d. | is cut |
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97.
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What must be done to be certain that a chemical change has taken place?
a. | Check for the production of bubbles before and after the change. | b. | Demonstrate that a
release of energy occurred after the change. | c. | Check the composition of the sample before and
after the change. | d. | Demonstrate that energy was absorbed by the
reactants after the change. |
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98.
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When paper turns yellow-brown upon exposure to sunlight, what type of change is
likely taking place?
a. | a physical change | b. | a chemical change | c. | neither a physical
change nor a chemical change | d. | both a physical change and a chemical
change |
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99.
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Which of the following indicates that a chemical change has happened during
cooking?
a. | The food darkens. | b. | Bubbles form in boiling
water. | c. | Butter melts. | d. | Energy is transferred from the stove to a
pan. |
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100.
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What happens to matter during a chemical reaction?
a. | Matter is neither destroyed or created. | b. | Some matter is
destroyed. | c. | Some matter is created. | d. | Some matter is destroyed and some is
created. |
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101.
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Which of the following is true for all chemical reactions?
a. | The total mass of the reactants increases. | b. | The total mass of
the products is greater than the total mass of the reactants. | c. | The total mass of
the products is less than the total mass of the reactants. | d. | The total mass of
the reactants equals the total mass of the products. |
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102.
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What is the result of multiplying 2.5 10 by 3.5 10 ?
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103.
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Which of the following measurements contains two significant figures?
a. | 0.004 00 L | c. | 0.000 44 L | b. | 0.004 04 L | d. | 0.004 40 L |
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104.
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When a test instrument is calibrated, does its accuracy, precision, or
reliability improve?
a. | precision | c. | reliability | b. | accuracy | d. | all of the
above |
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105.
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Which group of measurements is the most precise? (Each group of measurements is
for a different object.)
a. | 2 g, 3 g, 4 g | c. | 2 g, 2.5 g, 3 g | b. | 2.0 g, 3.0 g, 4.0 g | d. | 1 g, 3 g, 5 g |
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106.
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Which of the following measurements is expressed to three significant
figures?
a. | 0.007 m | c. | 7.30 10 km | b. | 7077
mg | d. | 0.070
mm |
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107.
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How many significant figures are in the measurement 0.003 4 kg?
a. | two | c. | five | b. | four | d. | This cannot be
determined. |
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108.
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How many significant figures are in the measurement 40,500 mg?
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109.
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How many significant figures are in the measurement 811.40 grams?
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110.
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Express the sum of 1111 km and 222 km using the correct number of significant
digits.
a. | 1300 km | c. | 1333 km | b. | 1330 km | d. | 1333.0 km |
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111.
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Express the product of 2.2 mm and 5.00 mm using the correct number of
significant digits.
a. | 10 mm | c. | 11.0 mm | b. | 11 mm | d. | 11.00
mm |
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112.
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What is the measurement 1042 L rounded off to two significant digits?
a. | 1.0 10 L | c. | 1050
L | b. | 1040 L | d. | 1.1
10 L |
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113.
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What is the metric system prefix for the quantity 0.000 001?
a. | centi- | c. | kilo- | b. | deci- | d. | micro- |
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114.
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Which of the following volumes is the smallest?
a. | one microliter | c. | one milliliter | b. | one liter | d. | one deciliter |
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115.
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What is the temperature of absolute zero measured in C?
a. | –373C | c. | –173C | b. | –273C | d. | –73C |
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116.
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Which temperature scale has no negative temperatures?
a. | Celsius | c. | Joule | b. | Fahrenheit | d. | Kelvin |
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117.
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What is the boiling point of water in kelvins?
a. | 0 K | c. | 273 K | b. | 100 K | d. | 373 K |
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118.
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The weight of an object ____.
a. | is the same as its mass | c. | is not affected by
gravity | b. | depends on its location | d. | is always the same |
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119.
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If the temperature changes by 100 K, by how much does it change in C?
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120.
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What is the quantity 0.0075 meters expressed in centimeters? Use the table above
to help you.
a. | 0.075 cm | c. | 7.5 cm | b. | 0.75 cm | d. | 70.5 cm |
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121.
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A train travels at a speed of 30 miles per hour. If 1 mile = 1.6 kilometers, how
fast is the train traveling in kilometers per minute?
a. | 0.4 km/min | c. | 0.8 km/min | b. | 0.6 km/min | d. | 1.0 km/min |
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122.
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The density of mercury is 5,427 kg/(m3). If the density of water is
1.0 g/mL, will mercury float or sink in water?
a. | Mercury will float because the density of mercury is 0.005427 g/mL, which is less
than the 1.0 g/mL density of water. | b. | Mercury will float because the density of
mercury is 0.05427 g/mL, which is less than the 1.0 g/mL density of water. | c. | Mercury will sink
because the density of mercury is 5.427 g/mL, which is greater than the 1.0 g/mL density of
water. | d. | Mercury will sink because the density of mercury is 5,427 g/mL, which is greater than
the 1.0 g/mL density of water. |
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123.
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Which of the following equalities is NOT correct? Use the table above to help
you.
a. | 100 cg = 1 g | c. | 1 cm = 1
mL | b. | 1000 mm = 1 m | d. | 10 kg = 1 g |
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124.
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A cubic meter is about the same as the volume occupied by a ____.
a. | kilogram of water | c. | washing machine | b. | cup of milk | d. | basketball
arena |
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125.
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What is the density of an object having a mass of 8.0 g and a volume of 25
cm ?
a. | 0.32 g/cm | c. | 3.1 g/cm | b. | 2.0 g/cm | d. | 200
g/cm |
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126.
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What is the volume of 45.6 g of silver if the density of silver is 10.5
g/mL?
a. | 0.23 mL | c. | 479 mL | b. | 4.34 mL | d. | none of the
above |
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127.
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If the temperature of a piece of steel decreases, what happens to its
density?
a. | The density decreases. | b. | The density increases. | c. | The density does not
change. | d. | The density first increases, then decreases. |
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128.
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Dalton's atomic theory included which idea?
a. | All atoms of all elements are the same size. | b. | Atoms of different
elements always combine in one-to-one ratios. | c. | Atoms of the same element are always
identical. | d. | Individual atoms can be seen with a microscope. |
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129.
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Which of the following is NOT a part of Dalton's atomic theory?
a. | All elements are composed of atoms. | b. | Atoms are always in motion. | c. | Atoms of the same
element are identical. | d. | Atoms that combine do so in simple whole-number
ratios. |
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130.
|
Which of the following was originally a tenet of Dalton's atomic theory,
but had to be revised about a century ago?
a. | Atoms are tiny indivisible particles. | b. | Atoms of the same element are
identical. | c. | Compounds are made by combining atoms. | d. | Atoms of different elements can combine with
one another in simple whole number ratios. |
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131.
|
The comparison of the number of atoms in a copper coin the size of a penny with
the number of people on Earth is made to illustrate which of the following?
a. | that atoms are indivisible | b. | that atoms are very small | c. | that atoms are very
large | d. | that in a copper penny, there is one atom for every person on
Earth |
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132.
|
Dalton hypothesized that atoms are indivisible and that all atoms of an element
are identical. It is now known that ____.
a. | all of Dalton's hypotheses are correct | b. | atoms of an element
can have different numbers of protons | c. | atoms are divisible | d. | all atoms of an
element are not identical but they must all have the same mass |
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133.
|
Which of the following is true about subatomic particles?
a. | Electrons are negatively charged and are the heaviest subatomic
particle. | b. | Protons are positively charged and the lightest subatomic
particle. | c. | Neutrons have no charge and are the lightest subatomic particle. | d. | The mass of a
neutron nearly equals the mass of a proton. |
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134.
|
What is the relative mass of an electron?
a. | 1/1840 the mass of a hydrogen atom | c. | 1/1840 the mass of a C-12
atom | b. | 1/1840 the mass of a neutron + proton | d. | 1/1840 the mass of an alpha
particle |
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135.
|
Which of the following is correct concerning subatomic particles?
a. | The electron was discovered by Goldstein in 1886. | b. | The neutron was
discovered by Chadwick in 1932. | c. | The proton was discovered by Thomson in
1880. | d. | Cathode rays were found to be made of protons. |
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136.
|
As a consequence of the discovery of the nucleus by Rutherford, which model of
the atom is thought to be true?
a. | Protons, electrons, and neutrons are evenly distributed throughout the volume of the
atom. | b. | The nucleus is made of protons, electrons, and neutrons. | c. | Electrons are
distributed around the nucleus and occupy almost all the volume of the atom. | d. | The nucleus is made
of electrons and protons. |
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137.
|
The atomic number of an element is the total number of which particles in the
nucleus?
a. | neutrons | c. | electrons | b. | protons | d. | protons and
electrons |
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138.
|
In which of the following sets is the symbol of the element, the number of
protons, and the number of electrons given correctly?
a. | In, 49 protons, 49 electrons | c. | Cs, 55 protons, 132.9
electrons | b. | Zn, 30 protons, 60 electrons | d. | F, 19 protons, 19
electrons |
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139.
|
Using the periodic table, determine the number of neutrons in O.
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140.
|
How many protons, electrons, and neutrons does an atom with atomic number 50 and
mass number 125 contain?
a. | 50 protons, 50 electrons, 75 neutrons | c. | 120 neutrons, 50 protons, 75
electrons | b. | 75 electrons, 50 protons, 50 neutrons | d. | 70 neutrons, 75 protons, 50
electrons |
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141.
|
If E is the symbol for an element, which two of the following symbols represent
isotopes of the same element?
a. | 1 and 2 | c. | 1 and 4 | b. | 3 and 4 | d. | 2 and 3 |
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142.
|
Which of the following sets of symbols represents isotopes of the same
element?
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143.
|
How is the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom calculated?
a. | Add the number of electrons and protons together. | b. | Subtract the number
of electrons from the number of protons. | c. | Subtract the number of protons from the mass
number. | d. | Add the mass number to the number of electrons. |
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144.
|
In which of the following is the number of neutrons correctly
represented?
a. | F has 0 neutrons. | c. | Mg has 24
neutrons. | b. | As has 108 neutrons. | d. | U has 146
neutrons. |
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145.
|
How do the isotopes hydrogen-1 and hydrogen-2 differ?
a. | Hydrogen-2 has one more electron than hydrogen-1. | b. | Hydrogen-2 has one
neutron; hydrogen-1 has none. | c. | Hydrogen-2 has two protons; hydrogen-1 has
one. | d. | Hydrogen-2 has one proton; hydrogen-1 has none. |
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146.
|
What unit is used to measure weighted average atomic mass?
a. | amu | c. | angstrom | b. | gram | d. | nanogram |
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147.
|
Which of the following equals one atomic mass unit?
a. | the mass of one electron | b. | the mass of one helium-4
atom | c. | the mass of one carbon-12 atom | d. | one-twelfth the mass of one carbon-12
atom |
|
|
148.
|
Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. | Protons have a positive charge. | b. | Electrons are negatively charged and have a
mass of 1 amu. | c. | The nucleus of an atom is positively charged. | d. | Neutrons are located
in the nucleus of an atom. |
|
|
149.
|
Why do chemists use relative masses of atoms compared to a reference isotope
rather than the actual masses of the atoms?
a. | The actual mass of an electron is very large compared to the actual mass of a
proton. | b. | The actual masses of atoms are very small and difficult to work
with. | c. | The number of subatomic particles in atoms of different elements
varies. | d. | The actual masses of protons, electrons, and neutrons are not
known. |
|
|
150.
|
Which of the following is necessary to calculate the atomic mass of an
element?
a. | the atomic mass of carbon-12 | b. | the atomic number of the
element | c. | the relative masses of the element’s protons and neutrons | d. | the masses of each
isotope of the element |
|
|
151.
|
In Bohr's model of the atom, where are the electrons and protons
located?
a. | The electrons move around the protons, which are at the center of the
atom. | b. | The electrons and protons move throughout the atom. | c. | The electrons occupy
fixed positions around the protons, which are at the center of the atom. | d. | The electrons and
protons are located throughout the atom, but they are not free to
move. |
|
|
152.
|
How does the energy of an electron change when the electron moves closer to the
nucleus?
a. | It decreases. | c. | It stays the same. | b. | It increases. | d. | It doubles. |
|
|
153.
|
What is the shape of the 3p atomic orbital?
a. | sphere | c. | bar | b. | dumbbell | d. | two perpendicular
dumbbells |
|
|
154.
|
What is the maximum number of f orbitals in any single energy level in an
atom?
|
|
155.
|
What is the maximum number of d orbitals in a principal energy
level?
|
|
156.
|
What is the maximum number of electrons in the second principal energy
level?
|
|
157.
|
When an electron moves from a lower to a higher energy level, the electron
____.
a. | always doubles its energy | b. | absorbs a continuously variable amount of
energy | c. | absorbs a quantum of energy | d. | moves closer to the
nucleus |
|
|
158.
|
If the spin of one electron in an orbital is clockwise, what is the spin of the
other electron in that orbital?
a. | zero | c. | counterclockwise | b. | clockwise | d. | both clockwise and
counterclockwise |
|
|
159.
|
What is the next atomic orbital in the series 1s, 2s, 2p,
3s, 3p?
|
|
160.
|
What is the electron configuration of potassium?
|
|
161.
|
If three electrons are available to fill three empty 2p atomic orbitals,
how will the electrons be distributed in the three orbitals?
a. | one electron in each orbital | b. | two electrons in one orbital, one in another,
none in the third | c. | three in one orbital, none in the other
two | d. | Three electrons cannot fill three empty 2p atomic
orbitals. |
|
|
162.
|
How many unpaired electrons are in a sulfur atom (atomic number 16)?
|
|
163.
|
How many half-filled orbitals are in a bromine atom?
|
|
164.
|
Stable electron configurations are likely to contain ____.
a. | filled energy sublevels | b. | fewer electrons than unstable
configurations | c. | unfilled s orbitals | d. | electrons with a clockwise
spin |
|
|
165.
|
What is the basis for exceptions to the aufbau diagram?
a. | Filled and half-filled energy sublevels are more stable than partially-filled energy
sublevels. | b. | Electron configurations are only probable. | c. | Electron spins are
more important than energy levels in determining electron configuration. | d. | Some elements have
unusual atomic orbitals. |
|
|
166.
|
Which electron configuration of the 4f energy sublevel is the most
stable?
|
|
167.
|
Which of the following electron configurations of outer sublevels is the most
stable?
|
|
168.
|
How does the speed of visible light compare with the speed of gamma rays, when
both speeds are measured in a vacuum?
a. | The speed of visible light is greater. | b. | The speed of gamma rays is
greater. | c. | The speeds are the same. | d. | No answer can be determined from the
information given. |
|
|
169.
|
Which of the following electromagnetic waves have the highest
frequencies?
a. | ultraviolet light waves | c. | microwaves | b. | X-rays | d. | gamma rays |
|
|
170.
|
How are the frequency and wavelength of light related?
a. | They are inversely proportional to each other. | b. | Frequency equals
wavelength divided by the speed of light. | c. | Wavelength is determined by dividing frequency
by the speed of light. | d. | They are directly proportional to each
other. |
|
|
171.
|
What is the wavelength of an electromagnetic wave that travels at 3 10 m/s and has a frequency of 60 MHz? (1 MHz =
1,000,000 Hz)
a. | | b. | 60 MHz ×
300,000,000 m/s | c. | | d. | No answer can be determined from the
information given. |
|
|
172.
|
Emission of light from an atom occurs when an electron ____.
a. | drops from a higher to a lower energy level | b. | jumps from a lower
to a higher energy level | c. | moves within its atomic
orbital | d. | falls into the nucleus |
|
|
173.
|
What is the approximate energy of a photon having a frequency of 4 10 Hz? ( h = 6.6 10 J s)
|
|
174.
|
What is the approximate frequency of a photon having an energy 5
10 J? ( h = 6.6 10 J s)
|
|
175.
|
Which of the following quantum leaps would be associated with the greatest
energy of emitted light?
a. | n = 5 to n = 1 | c. | n = 2 to n = 5 | b. | n = 4 to n = 5 | d. | n = 5 to n = 4 |
|
|
176.
|
How do the energy differences between the higher energy levels of an atom
compare with the energy differences between the lower energy levels of the atom?
a. | They are greater in magnitude than those between lower energy
levels. | b. | They are smaller in magnitude than those between lower energy
levels. | c. | There is no significant difference in the magnitudes of these
differences. | d. | No answer can be determined from the information
given. |
|
|
177.
|
Bohr's model could only explain the spectra of which type of atoms?
a. | single atoms with one electron | b. | bonded atoms with one
electron | c. | single atoms with more than one electron | d. | bonded atoms with
more than one electron |
|
|
178.
|
Who predicted that all matter can behave as waves as well as particles?
a. | Albert Einstein | c. | Max Planck | b. | Erwin Schrodinger | d. | Louis de
Broglie |
|
|
179.
|
According to the Heisenberg uncertainty principle, if the position of a moving
particle is known, what other quantity CANNOT be known?
a. | mass | c. | spin | b. | charge | d. | velocity |
|
|
180.
|
How can the position of a particle be determined?
a. | by analyzing its interactions with another particle | b. | by measuring its
velocity | c. | by measuring its mass | d. | by determining its
charge |
|
|
181.
|
The wavelike properties of electrons are useful in ____.
a. | defining photons | b. | writing electron
configurations | c. | magnifying objects | d. | determining the velocity and position of a
particle |
|
|
182.
|
In an s orbital, the probability of finding an electron a particular
distance from the nucleus does NOT depend on ____.
a. | a quantum mechanical model | c. | the Schrodinger
equation | b. | direction with respect to the nucleus | d. | the electron energy
sublevel |
|
|
183.
|
What is another name for the representative elements?
a. | Group A elements | c. | Group C elements | b. | Group B elements | d. | transition
elements |
|
|
184.
|
What is another name for the transition metals?
a. | noble gases | c. | Group B elements | b. | Group A elements | d. | Group C
elements |
|
|
185.
|
Who arranged the elements according to atomic mass and used the arrangement to
predict the properties of missing elements?
a. | Henry Moseley | c. | John Dalton | b. | Antoine Lavoisier | d. | Dmitri
Mendeleev |
|
|
186.
|
Which of the following categories includes the majority of the elements?
a. | metalloids | c. | metals | b. | liquids | d. | nonmetals |
|
|
187.
|
Of the elements Pt, V, Li, and Kr, which is a nonmetal?
|
|
188.
|
In which of the following sets is the symbol of the element, the number of
protons, and the number of electrons given correctly?
a. | In, 49 protons, 49 electrons | c. | Cs, 55 protons, 132.9
electrons | b. | Zn, 30 protons, 60 electrons | d. | F, 19 protons, 19
electrons |
|
|
189.
|
What element has the electron configuration 1 s2 s2 p3 s3 p?
a. | nitrogen | c. | silicon | b. | selenium | d. | silver |
|
|
190.
|
Which of the following is true about the electron configurations of the noble
gases?
a. | The highest occupied s and p sublevels are completely
filled. | b. | The highest occupied s and p sublevels are partially
filled. | c. | The electrons with the highest energy are in a d sublevel. | d. | The electrons with
the highest energy are in an f sublevel. |
|
|
191.
|
Which of the following electron configurations is most likely to result in an
element that is relatively inactive?
a. | a half-filled energy sublevel | b. | a filled energy sublevel | c. | one empty and one
filled energy sublevel | d. | a filled highest occupied principal energy
level |
|
|
192.
|
Which subatomic particle plays the greatest part in determining the properties
of an element?
a. | proton | c. | neutron | b. | electron | d. | none of the
above |
|
|
193.
|
Which of the following elements is a transition metal?
a. | cesium | c. | tellurium | b. | copper | d. | tin |
|
|
194.
|
Which of the following groupings contains only representative elements?
a. | Cu, Co, Cd | c. | Al, Mg, Li | b. | Ni, Fe, Zn | d. | Hg, Cr, Ag |
|
|
195.
|
Which of the following is true about the electron configurations of the
representative elements?
a. | The highest occupied s and p sublevels are completely
filled. | b. | The highest occupied s and p sublevels are partially
filled. | c. | The electrons with the highest energy are in a d sublevel. | d. | The electrons with
the highest energy are in an f sublevel. |
|
|
196.
|
What are the Group 1A and Group 7A elements examples of?
a. | representative elements | c. | noble gases | b. | transition
elements | d. | nonmetallic
elements |
|
|
197.
|
Of the elements Fe, Hg, U, and Te, which is a representative element?
|
|
198.
|
How does atomic radius change from top to bottom in a group in the periodic
table?
a. | It tends to decrease. | c. | It first increases, then decreases. | b. | It tends to
increase. | d. | It first
decreases, then increases. |
|
|
199.
|
What causes the shielding effect to remain constant across a period?
a. | Electrons are added to the same principal energy level. | b. | Electrons are added
to different principal energy levels. | c. | The charge on the nucleus is constant.
| d. | The atomic radius increases. |
|
|
200.
|
What element in the second period has the largest atomic radius?
a. | carbon | c. | potassium | b. | lithium | d. | neon |
|
|
201.
|
Which of the following elements has the smallest atomic radius?
a. | sulfur | c. | selenium | b. | chlorine | d. | bromine |
|
|
202.
|
Which of the following statements is true about ions?
a. | Cations form when an atom gains electrons. | b. | Cations form when an
atom loses electrons. | c. | Anions form when an atom gains
protons. | d. | Anions form when an atom loses protons. |
|
|
203.
|
The metals in Groups 1A, 2A, and 3A ____.
a. | gain electrons when they form ions | c. | all have ions with a 1 charge | b. | all form ions with a negative
charge | d. | lose electrons when
they form ions |
|
|
204.
|
Which of the following statements is NOT true about ions?
a. | Cations are positively charged ions. | b. | Anions are common among
nonmetals. | c. | Charges for ions are written as numbers followed by a plus or minus
sign. | d. | When a cation forms, more electrons are transferred to
it. |
|
|
205.
|
Why is the second ionization energy greater than the first ionization
energy?
a. | It is more difficult to remove a second electron from an atom. | b. | The size of atoms
increases down a group. | c. | The size of anions decreases across a
period. | d. | The nuclear attraction from protons in the nucleus
decreases. |
|
|
206.
|
In which of the following sets are the charges given correctly for all the
ions?
|
|
207.
|
In which of the following groups of ions are the charges all shown
correctly?
|
|
208.
|
What is the element with the lowest electronegativity value?
a. | cesium | c. | calcium | b. | helium | d. | fluorine |
|
|
209.
|
What is the element with the highest electronegativity value?
a. | cesium | c. | calcium | b. | helium | d. | fluorine |
|
|
210.
|
Which of the following elements has the smallest ionic radius?
|
|
211.
|
What is the energy required to remove an electron from an atom in the gaseous
state called?
a. | nuclear energy | c. | shielding energy | b. | ionization energy | d. | electronegative
energy |
|
|
212.
|
For Group 2A metals, which electron is the most difficult to remove?
a. | the first | b. | the second | c. | the
third | d. | All the electrons are equally difficult to remove. |
|
|
213.
|
Which of the following factors contributes to the decrease in ionization energy
within a group in the periodic table as the atomic number increases?
a. | increase in atomic size | b. | increase in size of the
nucleus | c. | increase in number of protons | d. | fewer electrons in the highest occupied energy
level |
|
|
214.
|
Which of the following elements has the lowest electronegativity?
a. | lithium | c. | bromine | b. | carbon | d. | fluorine |
|
|
215.
|
Which statement is true about electronegativity?
a. | Electronegativity is the ability of an anion to attract another
anion. | b. | Electronegativity generally increases as you move from top to bottom within a
group. | c. | Electronegativity generally is higher for metals than for
nonmetals. | d. | Electronegativity generally increases from left to right across a
period. |
|
|
216.
|
Which of the following statements correctly compares the relative size of an ion
to its neutral atom?
a. | The radius of an anion is greater than the radius of its neutral
atom. | b. | The radius of an anion is identical to the radius of its neutral
atom. | c. | The radius of a cation is greater than the radius of its neutral
atom. | d. | The radius of a cation is identical to the radius of its neutral
atom. |
|
|
217.
|
As you move from left to right across the second period of the periodic table
____.
a. | ionization energy increases | c. | electronegativity
decreases | b. | atomic radii increase | d. | atomic mass decreases |
|
|
218.
|
Of the following elements, which one has the smallest first ionization
energy?
a. | boron | c. | aluminum | b. | carbon | d. | silicon |
|
|
219.
|
How many valence electrons are in an atom of phosphorus?
|
|
220.
|
How many valence electrons does a helium atom have?
|
|
221.
|
What is the name given to the electrons in the highest occupied energy level of
an atom?
a. | orbital electrons | c. | anions | b. | valence electrons | d. | cations |
|
|
222.
|
What is the electron configuration of the calcium ion?
|
|
223.
|
What is the electron configuration of the gallium ion?
|
|
224.
|
What is the charge on the strontium ion?
a. | 2– | c. | 1 | b. | 1– | d. | 2 |
|
|
225.
|
How many electrons does silver have to give up in order to achieve a
pseudo-noble-gas electron configuration?
|
|
226.
|
What is the formula of the ion formed when potassium achieves noble-gas electron
configuration?
|
|
227.
|
Which of the following ions has a pseudo-noble-gas electron
configuration?
|
|
228.
|
Which of the following elements does NOT form an ion with a charge of 1 ?
a. | fluorine | c. | potassium | b. | hydrogen | d. | sodium |
|
|
229.
|
What is the formula of the ion formed when cadmium achieves a pseudo-noble-gas
electron configuration?
|
|
230.
|
What is the formula of the ion formed when phosphorus achieves a noble-gas
electron configuration?
|
|
231.
|
How does oxygen obey the octet rule when reacting to form compounds?
a. | It gains electrons. | b. | It gives up electrons. | c. | It does not change
its number of electrons. | d. | Oxygen does not obey the octet
rule. |
|
|
232.
|
Which of the following occurs in an ionic bond?
a. | Oppositely charged ions attract. | b. | Two atoms share two
electrons. | c. | Two atoms share more than two electrons. | d. | Like-charged ions
attract. |
|
|
233.
|
What is the net charge of the ionic compound calcium fluoride?
a. | 2– | c. | 0 | b. | 1– | d. | 1 |
|
|
234.
|
How many valence electrons are transferred from the nitrogen atom to potassium
in the formation of the compound potassium nitride?
|
|
235.
|
How many valence electrons are transferred from the calcium atom to iodine in
the formation of the compound calcium iodide?
|
|
236.
|
What is the formula unit of aluminum oxide?
|
|
237.
|
What is the formula for sodium sulfate?
|
|
238.
|
Alloys are commonly used in manufacturing. Which of the following is NOT a
reason to use an alloy instead of a pure metal?
a. | Bronze is tougher than pure copper. | c. | Brass is more malleable than pure
copper. | b. | Sterling silver is stronger than pure silver. | d. | Cast iron is more brittle than pure
iron. |
|
|
239.
|
Which of the following compounds has the formula KNO ?
a. | potassium nitrate | c. | potassium nitrite | b. | potassium nitride | d. | potassium nitrogen
oxide |
|
|
240.
|
Which of the following pairs of elements is most likely to form an ionic
compound?
a. | magnesium and fluorine | b. | nitrogen and sulfur | c. | oxygen and
chlorine | d. | sodium and aluminum |
|
|
241.
|
Which of the following particles are free to drift in metals?
a. | protons | c. | neutrons | b. | electrons | d. | cations |
|
|
242.
|
What is the basis of a metallic bond?
a. | the attraction of metal ions to mobile electrons | b. | the attraction
between neutral metal atoms | c. | the neutralization of protons by
electrons | d. | the attraction of oppositely charged ions |
|
|
243.
|
What characteristic of metals makes them good electrical conductors?
a. | They have mobile valence electrons. | b. | They have mobile protons. | c. | They have mobile
cations. | d. | Their crystal structures can be rearranged easily. |
|
|
244.
|
Which metallic crystal structure has a coordination number of 8?
a. | body-centered cubic | c. | hexagonal close-packing | b. | face-centered
cubic | d. | tetragonal |
|